CHO | RHO | You | LHO |
Pass | Pass | ||
Dbl | Pass | ? | |
|
You | CHO |
2NT | 4NT |
? |
(2NT = 20-21 ish)
In a weak field, pass and hope to take my better than 60% playing the hand. It is important to know the following simple formula: for a non-field slam to be profitable at matchpoints, the slam’s likelihood of success must be greater than our expected percentage score declaring in the normal spot.
[This was the first day of the Blues. Normally, I wouldn't know which answer applies, but this year, the weak field didn't go to Hawaii, so it was definitely a strong field. --Jeff]
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Partner opens a 12-14 NT. What's your plan?
(On this and #4, you have pretty standard methods
available, Stayman, Jacoby, and Texas.)
Why didn’t RHO bid
Obviously I’m not passing
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Of the Garbage Stayman bidders, after
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Partner opens a 12-14 NT. What's your plan?
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RHO opens 1NT (15-17). You play Woolsey.
What's your plan?
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You | LHO | CHO | RHO |
? |
Assuming that is the case, we must be in a force and default
position is that Pass is forcing while double is expressive.
Note that presumably partner had fit-showing bids available,
so the assumption is no good 5+ side suit? My 7-loser minimum
has the one advantage of no wastage, but it does not look like
a great hand to force to the five-level. However, if partner
has the archetypal 4-1-4-4, e.g.
This hand cost me a whole day. After being eliminated from the
Blues (for poor play and poorer luck), we entered a compact KO.
In the first round, we were in a 3-way against the two eventual
finalists. One of the six-board matches was pretty flat; we won
it by a little. The other one contained this board. But it was
only a three-board match, since our opponents played the first
three boards against the wrong team. We had good results on two
of those boards, but they were thrown out. Of the three boards
we got to play, two were flat. This is the other one. The auction
started the same at both tables, and in the problem position,
I doubled, and my opponent bid
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CHO | You |
4NT | |
5NT | ? |
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I'm not sure why folks bid
LHO | CHO | RHO | You | ||
Pass | |||||
Pass | |||||
all pass |
What do you lead?
If a diamond shift was best here partner would have signaled
with the
I rethink, but then I play another club. If declarer is 1=4=3=5, a diamond switch makes no difference at this point. If partner has the ace, he still gets it later, and if he has KJ, it's too late after my club lead. So I might as well hope for declarer to be 1=4=2=6. I am OK if declarer has a spade void as well.
Partner’s play at T1 should be suit preference. Partner does not
know that I have the
[At Trick 2,] Diamond. My lead could matter when declarer has long clubs and will pitch dummy's diamonds.
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I have no idea why partner didn't bid
RHO | LHO |
1NT (nf) | |
Pass |
What do you lead?
Maybe declarer is not 6-6. If declarer is 6-6, partner is either
After the
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Declarer | Opp | Dummy | Opp | ||
Pass | 2NT! | ||||
Pass | Pass | ||||
all pass |
2NT was a 4-card raise, limit or better.
I don't think anyone did anything terrible. The contract was one
misplaced honor away from being acceptable. Overall, I think Dummy's
pass over
Best guess is Dummy 75% Declarer 25%.
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LHO | CHO | RHO | You |
Pass | Pass | ||
Pass |
Your methods:
What does
There is something to be said for playing whatever the agreed
methods are but most partnerships may not have a way to show
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RHO | You | LHO | CHO |
1NT | Dbl | Pass | |
Pass | Pass | ||
Double was Woolsey (usually a 4-card major and longer minor).
What does
Partner could have bid
Your point about partner passing with a good hand is well taken.
If you and partner are designing a system, I like
Regarding advancer’s bid over the double, if advancer has clubs,
he can bid
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The panel mostly thinks it's natural, though; 2NT is bid your minor,