Playing in a cash prize tournament in Las Vegas, we are vying for the top prize when partner decides to test me. With both vulnerable, I deal myself

 AKQJ63 AQ97 86 10

1

2

6

First off, is it natural revealing a psych? I have 16 HCP and partner is bidding a slam, so that overcall seems somewhat dubious. The action at the table does not seem right for this interpretation, though. RHO looks Yarborough-bored and everyone seems surprised by partner's last call. More importantly, if he really had enough to bid a slam in hearts, he would not choose to double on the last round. He'd either pass or bid notrump himself. He is not the type to double for penalties when the double is takeout. He is more the sandbagging sort.

If 6 is not natural, then what is it? He must want me to make some choice between slams. From his perspective, it is possible that we should play any strain. We play that bids of 5NT in slam auctions are usually ``pick a slam,'' but that doesn't apply here, since I would assume that 5NT is a natural quantitative raise without express agreement otherwise. Can he be asking me to pick a minor suit grand? I doubt it; he'd try 4 or four of a minor first. We play that four of a minor is forcing if 3NT is playable, which it obviously is, so he could start with 4. And if he really had a monster minor two-suiter, wouldn't he begin with 3 over 2, rather than the ambiguous negative double that I might even pass? No, he cannot be looking for a minor suit grand.

How about a grand slam? Maybe he has a void heart and wants to know if I have stuff outside of hearts? 5 should probably be Exclusion Roman Key Card Blackwood on this auction, but we have never considered it before, so he might well be afraid to try it. That's a possibility, but I doubt he'd risk a negative double with a good hand and a heart void.

Should 6 here replace the 5NT ``pick a slam'' convention? Maybe, but without discussion, I cannot assume so. He must have some express meaning that he cannot communicate in any other way.

Oh, well, the round is ending and we have not even played the hand yet. I have to make a decision now. I have no idea what he is doing, so I'll try 6 because that ought to be a making contract. I cannot imagine that it will be a bad score and I give up trying to get the best score.

Dummy appears with

 542 4 KQJ3 AKQJ7

A

Looking at his hand, I am still puzzled as to the meaning of 6. He explains that he wanted me to make a choice between 6 and 6NT by looking at my heart holding. If I had something like QJ10x, he wanted to play 6, but on the actual holding was hoping I'd bid 6NT. Maybe he is right, but I do not think I would ever have the confidence to bid 6NT at the table on this sequence. At least no harm was done.

A week later I'm still thinking about this hand. I think my action at the table was clear-cut because I knew that he didn't know that I'd know what his bid meant. Therefore, safety first. But what should 6 really mean?

Let's consider his alternatives. 5NT is not ``pick a slam'' on this auction; I think that is clear. Since this is non-suit-agreement auction, a ``pick a slam'' bid is needed. I think that should be 5, or, in general, a jump cue or a jump to an impossible suit at the five level. To force a choice between spades and notrump, the 5 bidder corrects six of a minor to 6. (Wrong choice, partner.) Correcting to 6 would suggest that the choice was between the other minor and spades. Indicating the further choice must suggest notrump.

So should 6 be an immediate choice of grands question? I don't know; partner can ask for a choice of smalls and raise. But sometimes the choice of which grand is different from the choice of smalls, in particular when partner has a heart void. With KQx, I'd pick 6NT, but not 7NT. So, 6 must be a choice of grands with a heart void. Probably.